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geott
Forum:
Psychology and Money Management
May 18th, 2012, 02:14 PM
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Is this a valid approach from a statistical standpoint?
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Posted By
geott
1 = 80 % 2 = 0.8 ^2 = 64% 3 = 0.8 ^3 = 51.2% ...
1 = 80 %
2 = 0.8 ^2 = 64%
3 = 0.8 ^3 = 51.2%
4 = 0.8 ^4 = 40.96%
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May 18th, 2012, 02:14 PM
