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You cannot spot divergences without it, but you can read slowing of momentum via candles and simple price action. That said perhaps it was wrong to suggest removing MACD, if it works for you then use it.
Front running is simply market participants getting in a few ticks ahead of a level, getting in a bit early. This is all assuming your level was correctly drawn of course, again the answer is in the charts.
ah right yeah i get what front running is now thanks, and yeah i think perhaps it could be that but the move did not seem big enough to have reached it's target.
So where do MACD divergences fit into trading, so you have the level you find, then you compare that to legs that price have already reacted off and their targets on the same and higher timeframes (progression) and then when price approaches the level you go to the same timeframe as the level and lower to see the slowing off momentum. Is that all or what else am i missing, does macd divergence and the cycles they run form part of the analysis as well? Thanks for your help
so you use the macd in the same way as you use momentum in analysis, have i got everything else down?
And i seen that post today where he called himself a dawg and some other guy was having an argument with him and was called kitten "And being a eager helpful dawgie, I suggested the MACD. This rude ... hmmm ... (be nice) raunchy feline. =), proceeded to call me a liar and said that the MACD is price base. How rude!!! And how stupid!!!" lol
Yes so is this what you mean in the essay, since they is no macd divergence on the m15 which is where the level is from or on the ltf's either.
But how come that would be the case for this, when price seems flat before the slowing in momentum is leading into the level, is that because its an accumulation for a much larger play and the level is of more significance, which you can tell through the setup being so great? and also if price is in an area where price momentum has slowed down because of accumulation, then why would it drop on no bids since, price has moved lower so if anything it makes it more desirable to buy as the price is lower, so they should be bids right? or is it longs being offloaded. Thanks
I don't know, I do not follow that market so I have no idea how it was set up across time frames.
Just from that screenshot, it looks like you had a pop from the level you have drawn - the higher white line, probably a level if you look further left - then we went through it on the second touch (or third touch it looks like, whatever touch that is depending on HTF), then we came into the next level you have drawn, move sideways for a few candles and then popped.... No need to over complicate it, the market fell to the next level you have drawn, moved sideways as momentum slowed and then popped.
I do not have time to go through every chart example you have mate, just read the blog articles on compartmentalising the price action and most of the issues after that to refresh your knowledge. Also spend time just watching and observing the same thing happening over and over again, to solidify it in your mind. Also bear in mind there are traders out there who have made fortunes being right 50% of the time, you do not need to be perfect....
And sorry - to answer the question at the top of your post - yes, that is exactly what I mean. There is no MACD divergence, but you do not need it to notice that momentum has slowed. This is the problem I had when first using the MACD, I kept waiting for divergences or trying to find them across time frames etc. etc. - getting rid of it helped. Again though, that is personal preference.
Remember that the MACD is just a tool, there are traders who follow this style of trading and do fantastically whilst using it and fitting it into their process. So do not just get rid of it because I suggested to do so, make sure it makes sense and best of luck mate.
I would pay particular attention to maricas69 and kewltechgrad posts. For some reason I think they might be something more than guys who understood KT's concepts!!!!